The use of the word "Psalm" in scripture

As previously mentioned, ado is the Greek word for singing without instruments and it is freely used with the verb form of the word psalm (Eph 5:19; Col 3:16) in the writings of Paul. Again, there is virtually no historical evidence to suggest that the meaning of the word “psalm” changed from including instruments to being exclusively vocal singing by the time of Christ.[1]

Certainly God did not change and what pleases him in song did not change as the plan of salvation was revealed. Accompanied singing was not commanded in the Law of Moses or exclusively linked to temple worship. The coming of Christ did not terminate accompanied singing. Commentators in the past have often sought to distinguish sharply between worship under the Old Covenant and worship under the New Covenant, deciphering rules appropriate to each.[2] James Bales is a good example. In his book, Instrumental Music and New Testament Worship (Searcy, Ark.: Resource Publications, 1987) he seeks to defeat all arguments that reference the NT use of the word psalms by linking it to the Law of Moses or to worship in the temple. He suggests that the word psalm does not mean the book of Psalms or specific psalms of David (p. 61). We reject this entirely. Given the high frequency of Psalms quotations in the NT, it is difficult to see how Bales comes to this conclusion except by a predisposed bias against the word psalm. No OT book is cited more often as a warrant for understanding the life of Jesus than the book of Psalms. Bales also argues that the meaning of the word psalm changed between the OT and the NT (p. 65) which we have previously critiqued and found lacking in substantive support.

There is a hint of the significance of music to the joy of the church in the story of the prodigal son in Luke 15:25: “Meanwhile, the older son was in the field. When he came near the house, he heard music and dancing.” Christ himself and others like Luke and Paul, continually make reference to the Psalms, David’s book of accompanied singing, without the need for clarification of the word:

Jesus (Luke 20:42): “David himself declares in the Book of Psalms . . .”

Jesus (Luke 24:44): “Everything must be fulfilled that is written about me in the Law of Moses, the Prophets, and the Psalms.”

Luke (Acts 13:33, 35): “As it is written in the second Psalm . . . . So it is stated elsewhere” [Ps 2:7].

Paul (Eph 5:19): “Speak to one another with psalms, hymns and spiritual songs.”[3]

Paul (Col 3:16): “. . . as you teach and admonish one another in all wisdom, and as you sing psalms, hymns and spiritual songs . . . .”

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[1] Walter Bauer, A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature, trans. by Arndt and Gingrich, (Chicago: University of Chicago Press, 1979), 891. Bauer quotes a non- Christian by the name of Lucian to prove that the meaning of psalms did not change by the time of Christ. Lucian says, “It is impossible to pipe without a pipe or to psallein without a lyre or to ride without a horse.” The translators of Bauer also mention Eric Werner as the leading writer on understanding the proper historical context for the church fathers’ opposition to instrumental music.

[2] This raises the thorny issue of the relationship of the OT to the NT. This is well beyond our current scope but suffice it to say that depending on one’s approach to Scripture (hermeneutic), one will either find continuity or discontinuity. We argue for more continuity on this music issue based on the nature of God which will be discussed below. There is nothing in the NT to suggest that every aspect of OT worship was canceled after the coming of Christ. The sacrificing of animals seems to be the main difference between OT and NT worship.

[3] Some scholars argue that Eph 5:19 is a Biblical mandate to sing the Psalms in worship. Jones, Paul S. Sing and Make Music, page 193. To Jones, singing the Psalms is “not an optional activity.”